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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

10.06.2025 09:09

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

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What's (not “whats”) the rule?

There's no rule.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

What does it mean when your husband comments and likes other women on social media? He has private IG and TikTok accounts that I have no access to. He has saved videos and pictures of women on his phone.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

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Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.